I seem to remember that the Securities company had been sold a pup? Wasn't it reported that RW told them his share represented the capital, whereas in fact he owned 1%?
If RW really did borrow 180K then weher did it go? It wasn't money for running expenses, as i understood it, but to buy OK shares - we seem to be sure RW never paid OK for those shares so does that mean RW still has the money? What then happened to it?
In a hypothetical case, if an employee borrows a six figure sum using his employer's business as a security, and then keeps the money, wouldn't this interest Inspector Knacker? In any case, presumably it would be at least strongly arguable that the transaction was outside the authority of the employee and so was a matter between the lender and the individual?